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2/12/2021 04:55:00 PM
I do understand, but that example was actually meant to illustrate a violation of a free market that is permissible under capitalism. The entire point of the example was to show that what you are calling capitalism is a free market, but that the actual definition of capitalism is a different thing entirely. Bypassing the non-aggression principle is not allowed in a free market, but it is allowed under capitalism. In your response, you have subconsciously used the conflation of capitalism and free markets to try to prove they are equivalent. You even wrote that they are equivalent >capitalism (the free market)